[Chip] Wisdom of Purity (.it)

[apple-joe]

SamZen: Fair enough, but then again, let me ask: Why is the sound which represents the number that 'fits easily' considered to fit easily (sound well)? Could the interpretation of sound have been the other way around if time was restarted, or was sound 'determined' to be perceived the way it was?

I mean, imagine as far back in time as you're able to, back when they first thought about tonalities, and started associating them with feelings and moods. There must have been a beginning, and how come it developed the way it did? Completely random? Any chance it may have developed in the opposite direction (ie. what is considered upbeat music today to be considered dark and thought of as perfect tonalities to use in settings of  more gloomy character)?

LPChip: Fibrations to brains, hmm. As in; it happens automatically? For instance, the first time a major tonality was considered; (or wait, 'considered' might be a bad term if it happens automatically without any consideration), this tonality automatically provided for a positive association? Hence the usage of such tones in upbeat environments?

LPChip, you wrote: "a major chord is a very strong chord which is associated with good which is associated with happy". To me, this says nothing (How is a major chord stronger than a minor chord? And why is this strong chord associated with 'good'?). Your sentence about the minor chord is then weak as well I think, as it builds on a comparison of the major chord from the previous sentence.

Your final sentences quite nicely describes the core of my wondering again. It's almost impossible to answer I think.